Element 3A (Technician Class) Question Pool
* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all
Technician examinations beginning July 1, 1997 and is intended to
be used up through June 30, 2001.
* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis
following each question number [eg, in T1A01 (D), position D
contains the correct answer text].
Question Pool
ELEMENT 3A - TECHNICIAN CLASS
as released by
Question Pool Committee
National Conference of
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
December 1, 1996
SUBELEMENT T1 - COMMISSION'S RULES
[5 Exam Questions --5 Groups]
T1A Station control; frequency privileges authorized to the
Technician and Technician Plus class control operator; term of
licenses, grace periods and modifications of licenses
T1A01 (D) [97.3a13]
What is the control point of an amateur station?
A. The on/off switch of the transmitter
B. The input/output port of a packet controller
C. The variable frequency oscillator of a transmitter
D. The location at which the control operator function is
performed
T1A02 (B) [97.3a13]
What is the term for the location at which the control operator
function is performed?
A. The operating desk
B. The control point
C. The station location
D. The manual control location
T1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305e]
Which of the following frequencies may a Technician Plus operator
use?
A. 7.1 - 7.2 MHz
B. 14.1 - 14.2 MHz
C. 21.1 - 21.2 MHz
D. 28.1 - 29.2 MHz
T1A04 (C) [97.301a]
Which amateur licenses authorize privileges on 52.525 MHz?
A. Extra and Advanced only
B. Extra, Advanced and General only
C. All classes except Novice
D. All classes
T1A05 (B) [97.301a]
Which amateur licenses authorize privileges on 146.52 MHz?
A. All classes
B. All classes except Novice
C. Extra, Advanced and General only
D. Extra and Advanced only
T1A06 (A) [97.301a,f]
Which amateur licenses authorize privileges on 223.50 MHz?
A. All classes
B. Extra, Advanced, General and Technician only
C. Extra, Advanced and General only
D. Extra and Advanced only
T1A07 (B) [97.301a]
Which amateur licenses authorize privileges on 446.0 MHz?
A. All classes
B. All classes except Novice
C. Extra, Advanced and General only
D. Extra and Advanced only
T1A08 (D) [97.301e]
In addition to passing both the Novice and Technician written
examinations [Elements 2 and 3A], what else must you do before you
are allowed to use the amateur bands below 30 MHz?
A. Pass the General class theory test
B. Notify the FCC that you intend to operate on the HF bands
C. Attend a class to learn about HF communications
D. Pass a Morse code test at a minimum speed of 5 WPM
T1A09 (C) [97.9b]
If you are a Technician licensee awaiting the grant of your
Technician Plus license, what must you have to prove that you are
authorized to use the Novice amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?
A. A certificate from the FCC showing that you have notified them
that you will be using the HF bands
B. A certificate showing that you have attended a class in HF
communications
C. A Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination showing
that you have passed a Morse code test
D. No special proof is required
T1A10 (C) [97.25a]
What is the normal term for which a new amateur station license is
granted?
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. For the lifetime of the licensee
T1A11 (A) [97.21b]
What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an
expired 10-year license?
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. There is no grace period
T1A12 (A) [97.21a3]
What can you do to renew or change your operator/primary station
license?
A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in
Gettysburg, PA or a VEC who will file it electronically
B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and mail or fax it to the
nearest FCC field office
C. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in
Washington, DC or e-mail the information to that office
D. Nothing; an amateur license never needs changing or renewing
T1A13 (C) [97.27a1]
Under what conditions, if any, may the FCC modify an amateur
license?
A. None; only the US Congress has this authority
B. Whenever it so desires
C. Whenever such action will promote the public interest,
convenience, and necessity
D. Only when a state of emergency exists
T1B Emission privileges for Technician and Technician Plus class
control operator; frequency selection and sharing; transmitter
power
T1B01 (D) [97.305c]
On what HF band may a Technician Plus licensee use FM phone
emission?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 75 meters
D. None
T1B02 (C) [97.301e]
What additional privileges are available to a Technician who
upgrades to Technician Plus?
A. Only CW in the 3.675 - 3.725 MHz frequency band
B. All privileges in the 1.8 - 2.0 MHz frequency band
C. All HF privileges available to Novice operators
D. All privileges in the 28.0 - 29.7 MHz frequency band
T1B03 (B) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 6-meter band may phone emissions be
transmitted?
A. 50.0 - 54.0 MHz only
B. 50.1 - 54.0 MHz only
C. 51.0 - 54.0 MHz only
D. 52.0 - 54.0 MHz only
T1B04 (A) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may image emissions be
transmitted?
A. 144.1 - 148.0 MHz only
B. 146.0 - 148.0 MHz only
C. 144.0 - 148.0 MHz only
D. 146.0 - 147.0 MHz only
T1B05 (D)
What frequencies within the 2-meter band are reserved exclusively
for CW operations?
A. 146 - 147 MHz
B. 146.0 - 146.1 MHz
C. 145 - 148 MHz
D. 144.0 - 144.1 MHz
T1B06 (C) [97.303]
If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user
of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what
does this mean?
A. Nothing special; all users of a frequency band have equal
rights to operate
B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during
emergencies
C. Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do
not cause harmful interference to primary users
D. Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any
interference caused by primary users
T1B07 (D) [97.303]
If you are using a frequency within a band assigned to the amateur
service on a secondary basis, and a station assigned to the
primary service on that band causes interference, what action
should you take?
A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the
interference
B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the
interference
D. Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference to
the other station, in violation of FCC rules
T1B08 (C) [97.101b]
What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same
frequency?
A. The station operator with a lesser class of license must yield
the frequency to a higher-class licensee
B. The station operator with a lower power output must yield the
frequency to the station with a higher power output
C. Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the
frequency
D. Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the
frequency to stations in ITU Region 2
T1B09 (A) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater
and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one
station only, who is responsible for resolving the interference?
A. The licensee of the unrecommended repeater
B. Both repeater licensees
C. The licensee of the recommended repeater
D. The frequency coordinator
T1B10 (D) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation
of both stations, who is responsible for resolving the
interference?
A. The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended for the
longest period of time
B. The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended the
most recently
C. The frequency coordinator
D. Both repeater licensees
T1B11 (A) [97.205c]
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater
and a frequency coordinator has NOT recommended either station,
who is primarily responsible for resolving the interference?
A. Both repeater licensees
B. The licensee of the repeater that has been in operation for
the longest period of time
C. The licensee of the repeater that has been in operation for
the
shortest period of time
D. The frequency coordinator
T1B12 (D) [97.3b6]
What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna
transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the
modulation envelope?
A. Peak transmitter power
B. Peak output power
C. Average radio-frequency power
D. Peak envelope power
T1B13 (D) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur
station on 146.52 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 500 watts ERP
C. 1000 watts DC input
D. 1500 watts PEP output
T1C Digital communications, station identification, ID with
authorization of Certificate of Successful Completion of
Examination
T1C01 (C) [97.307f3,4]
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions below 50 MHz?
A. 0.1 kHz
B. 0.5 kHz
C. 1 kHz
D. 5 kHz
T1C02 (D) [97.307]
What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions above 50 MHz?
A. 0.1 kHz or the sending speed in bauds, whichever is greater
B. 0.5 kHz or the sending speed in bauds, whichever is greater
C. 5 kHz or the sending speed in bauds, whichever is greater
D. The FCC rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift above
50 MHz
T1C03 (B) [97.307f4]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions
on the 10-meter band?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
T1C04 (C) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions
on the 2-meter band?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
T1C05 (C) [97.307f4]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions on the 10-meter band?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
T1C06 (B) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions on the 6- and 2-meter bands?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
T1C07 (A) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of RTTY, data or
multiplexed emissions using an unspecified digital code on the 6-
and 2-meter bands?
A. 20 kHz
B. 50 kHz
C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband
phone emission
D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW
emission
T1C08 (D) [97.307f6]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions above 222 MHz?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
T1C09 (C) [97.301a, 97.303e3]
On what exclusive frequency band may packet network relays operate
on a secondary basis (with specific permission)?
A. 50 - 51 MHz
B. 146 - 147 MHz
C. 219 - 220 MHz
D. 440 - 450 MHz
T1C10 (B) [97.313h]
What is the maximum output power permitted for digital network
relays on 219-220 MHz?
A. 25 W PEP
B. 50 W PEP
C. 100 W PEP
D. 1500 W PEP
T1C11 (C) [97.209a]
What license class must be held by the control operator of a
station communicating through an amateur satellite?
A. Extra or Advanced
B. Any class except Novice
C. Any class
D. Technician with satellite endorsement
T1C12 (A) [97.305a]
What emission type may always be used for station identification,
regardless of the transmitting frequency?
A. CW
B. RTTY
C. MCW
D. Phone
T1C13 (B) [97.119b1]
What is the fastest code speed a repeater may use for automatic
identification?
A. 13 words per minute
B. 20 words per minute
C. 30 words per minute
D. There is no limitation
T1C14 (B) [97.119a]
How often must a Technician class operator identify his or her
station when operating simplex FM phone from an automobile?
A. Once every 15 minutes
B. At least every ten minutes, and at the end of each
communication
C. At the beginning and end of each transmission
D. Once every 30 minutes
T1C15 (A) [97.119e1]
If you are a Novice licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Technician Plus privileges,
how should you identify your station when transmitting on 146.34
MHz?
A. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word
that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "KT"
B. You may not operate on 146.34 MHz until your new license
arrives
C. No special form of identification is needed
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
T1C16 (C) [97.119e]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for Technician Plus privileges,
how should you identify your station when transmitting on 28.4
MHz?
A. You must give your call sign followed by the words "plus plus"
B. You must give your call sign followed by the words "temporary
plus"
C. No special form of identification is needed
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
T1D Correct language, phonetics, beacons and radio control of
model craft and vehicles
T1D01 (C) [97.119b2]
If you are using a language besides English to make a contact,
what language must you use when identifying your station?
A. The language being used for the contact
B. The language being used for the contact, provided the US has a
third-party communications agreement with that country
C. English
D. Any language of a country that is a member of the
International Telecommunication Union
T1D02 (B) [97.119b2]
Which language, besides English, may you use for amateur
communications?
A. Any language, provided you identify your station in both
English and French
B. Any language, provided you identify your station in English
C. Only German, Spanish, French or Japanese
D. Only languages common within your ITU region
T1D03 (C) [97.119b2]
What do the FCC Rules suggest you use as an aid for correct
station identification when using phone?
A. A speech compressor
B. Q signals
C. A phonetic alphabet
D. Unique words of your choice
T1D04 (A) [97.119b2]
What is the advantage in using the International Telecommunication
Union (ITU) phonetic alphabet when identifying your station?
A. The words are internationally recognized substitutes for
letters
B. There is no advantage
C. The words have been chosen to be easily pronounced by Asian
cultures
D. It preserves traditions begun in the early days of Amateur
Radio
T1D05 (A) [97.119b2]
What is one reason to avoid using "cute" phrases or word
combinations to identify your station?
A. They are not easily understood by non-English-speaking
amateurs
B. They might offend English-speaking amateurs
C. They do not meet FCC identification requirements
D. They might be interpreted as codes or ciphers intended to
obscure the meaning of your identification
T1D06 (A) [97.3a9]
What is an amateur station called that transmits communications
for the purpose of observation of propagation and reception?
A. A beacon
B. A repeater
C. An auxiliary station
D. A radio control station
T1D07 (B) [97.203c]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur
station in beacon operation?
A. 10 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 500 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
T1D08 (B) [97.205a]
What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to operate a
beacon or a repeater station?
A. Novice
B. Technician
C. General
D. Amateur Extra
T1D09 (C) [97.215a]
What minimum information must be on a label affixed to a
transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. Station call sign
B. Station call sign and the station licensee's name
C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address
D. Station call sign and the station licensee's class of license
T1D10 (D) [97.215a]
What are the station identification requirements for an amateur
transmitter used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. Once every ten minutes
B. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of each
transmission
C. At the beginning and end of each transmission
D. Station identification is not required if the transmitter is
labeled with the station licensee's name, address and call sign
T1D11 (B) [97.215c]
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is
allowed when used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. One milliwatt
B. One watt
C. 25 watts
D. 100 watts
T1E Emergency communications; broadcasting; permissible one-way,
satellite and third-party communication; indecent and obscene
language
T1E01 (A) [97.401a]
If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area
where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of
transmissions may stations make?
A. Those that are necessary to meet essential communication needs
and facilitate relief actions
B. Those that allow a commercial business to continue to operate
in the affected area
C. Those for which material compensation has been paid to the
amateur operator for delivery into the affected area
D. Those that are to be used for program production or news
gathering for broadcasting purposes
T1E02 (C) [97.401c]
What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary
state of communication emergency?
A. A list of organizations authorized to use radio communications
in the affected area
B. A list of amateur frequency bands to be used in the affected
area
C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during
the emergency
D. An operating schedule for authorized amateur emergency
stations
T1E03 (A) [97.3a10]
What is meant by the term broadcasting?
A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public,
either direct or relayed
B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals from
non-amateur stations
C. One-way radio communications, regardless of purpose or content
D. One-way or two-way radio communications between two or more
stations
T1E04 (B) [97.3a10, 97.113b]
Which of the following one-way communications may not be
transmitted in the amateur service?
A. Telecommands to model craft
B. Broadcasts intended for the general public
C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station
D. Morse code practice
T1E05 (A) [97.209b2]
Which band may NOT be used by Earth stations for satellite
communications?
A. 6 meters
B. 2 meters
C. 70 centimeters
D. 23 centimeters
T1E06 (C) [97.113e]
If you wanted to use your amateur station to retransmit
communications between a space shuttle and its associated Earth
stations, what agency must first give its approval?
A. The FCC in Washington, DC
B. The office of your local FCC Engineer In Charge (EIC)
C. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
D. The Department of Defense (DOD)
T1E07 (D) [97.11a2]
What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by
an amateur station?
A. Any amount agreed upon in advance
B. Donation of repairs to amateur equipment
C. Donation of amateur equipment
D. No payment of any kind is allowed
T1E08 (D) [97.115a2]
When are third-party messages allowed to be sent to a foreign
country?
A. When sent by agreement of both control operators
B. When the third party speaks to a relative
C. They are not allowed under any circumstances
D. When the US has a third-party agreement with the foreign
country or the third party is qualified to be a control operator
T1E09 (A) [97.115b1]
If you let an unlicensed third party use your amateur station,
what must you do at your station's control point?
A. You must continuously monitor and supervise the third-party's
participation
B. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if
contacts are made in countries that have no third-party
communications agreement with the US
C. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if
contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz
D. You must key the transmitter and make the station
identification
T1E10 (B) [97.113a4]
When may you send obscene words from your amateur station?
A. Only when they do not cause interference to other
communications
B. Never; obscene words are not allowed in amateur transmissions
C. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
D. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that
they should not be used on the air
T1E11 (D) [97.113a4]
When may you send indecent words from your amateur station?
A. Only when they do not cause interference to other
communications
B. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
C. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that
they should not be used on the air
D. Never; indecent words are not allowed in amateur transmissions
SUBELEMENT T2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES
[3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
T2A Repeater operation; autopatch, definition and proper use;
courteous operation; repeater frequency coordination
T2A01 (A)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 2-meter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2A02 (C)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 1.25-meter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2A03 (D)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters
in the 70-centimeter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2A04 (C)
What is an autopatch?
A. An automatic digital connection between a US and a foreign
amateur
B. A digital connection used to transfer data between a hand-held
radio and a computer
C. A device that allows radio users to access the public
telephone system
D. A video interface allowing images to be patched into a digital
data stream
T2A05 (B)
What is the purpose of repeater operation?
A. To cut your power bill by using someone else's higher power
system
B. To help mobile and low-power stations extend their usable
range
C. To transmit signals for observing propagation and reception
D. To communicate with stations in services other than amateur
T2A06 (B)
What causes a repeater to "time out"?
A. The repeater's battery supply runs out
B. Someone's transmission goes on longer than the repeater allows
C. The repeater gets too hot and stops transmitting until its
circuitry cools off
D. Something is wrong with the repeater
T2A07 (D)
During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation
should be discouraged?
A. Mobile stations
B. Low-power stations
C. Highway traffic information nets
D. Third-party communications nets
T2A08 (B)
What is a courtesy tone (used in repeater operations)?
A. A sound used to identify the repeater
B. A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete
C. A sound used to indicate that a message is waiting for someone
D. A sound used to activate a receiver in case of severe weather
T2A09 (A)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."?
A. Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise
B. Your signal has no spurious sounds
C. Your signal is not strong enough to be received
D. Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard
T2A10 (B)
How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the
station's call sign?
A. Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign
B. Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station
C. Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign
D. Wait for the station to call "CQ," then answer it
T2A11 (A)
What is a repeater called that is available for anyone to use?
A. An open repeater
B. A closed repeater
C. An autopatch repeater
D. A private repeater
T2A12 (A)
Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF
frequencies instead of HF frequencies?
A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance
communication
B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
D. Because signals are louder on VHF and UHF frequencies
T2A13 (A)
How might you join a closed repeater system?
A. Contact the control operator and ask to join
B. Use the repeater until told not to
C. Use simplex on the repeater input until told not to
D. Write the FCC and report the closed condition
T2A14 (B)
How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy
transmitter testing or loading-up procedure?
A. Choose an unoccupied frequency
B. Use a dummy load
C. Use a non-resonant antenna
D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure
T2A15 (C)
What is the proper way to ask someone their location when using a
repeater?
A. Say, "What is your QTH?"
B. Say, "What is your 20?"
C. Say, "Where are you?"
D. Locations are not normally told by radio
T2A16 (C)
Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a
repeater?
A. To check the SWR of the repeater
B. To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications
C. To listen for anyone wanting to break in
D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch
T2A17 (A)
Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from
using the repeater
B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
C. To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond
D. To keep long-distance charges down
T2A18 (D)
What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater?
A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the
desired party
B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the
conversation
C. Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking
D. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions
T2A19 (D)
What is a repeater frequency coordinator?
A. Someone who organizes the assembly of a repeater station
B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of repeater to buy
C. The person whose call sign is used for a repeater's
identification
D. A person or group that recommends frequencies for repeater
operation
T2A20 (D)
What is it called if the frequency coordinator recommends that you
operate on a specific repeater frequency pair?
A. FCC type acceptance
B. FCC type approval
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Repeater frequency coordination
T2B Simplex operations; RST signal reporting; choice of equipment
for desired communications; communications modes including amateur
television (ATV), packet radio and SSB/CW weak signal operations
T2B01 (C)
Why should simplex be used where possible, instead of using a
repeater?
A. Signal range will be increased
B. Long distance toll charges will be avoided
C. The repeater will not be tied up unnecessarily
D. Your antenna's effectiveness will be better tested
T2B02 (A)
If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you
find out if you could communicate using simplex instead?
A. See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's
input frequency
B. See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower
frequency band
C. See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater
D. See if a third station can clearly receive both of you
T2B03 (C)
If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why would it
be good amateur practice to change to another frequency?
A. The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver
B. There are more repeater operators than simplex operators
C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical
D. Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization
of the FCC
T2B04 (B)
Which of the following is the best way to perform an on-the-air
test of a pair of hand-held transceivers on your work bench?
A. Operate them through a local repeater
B. Operate them on an unoccupied simplex frequency
C. Operate them into separate inverting loads
D. Operate them into linear amplifiers
T2B05 (A)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five seven..."?
A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong
B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone
T2B06 (C)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is three three..."?
A. The contact is serial number thirty-three
B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak
in strength
D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength
T2B07 (D)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five nine plus 20
dB..."?
A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels
greater than strength 9
T2B08 (B)
Which of the following would be the most useful for an emergency
search and rescue operation?
A. A high-gain antenna, such as a 6-foot dish
B. A hand-held VHF transceiver set up to access a local repeater
C. An HF multiband transceiver capable of world-wide
communications
D. A portable 40-meter dipole that could be temporarily mounted
on any available support
T2B09 (A)
Which of the following modes of communication are NOT available to
a Technician class operator?
A. CW and SSB on HF bands
B. Amateur television (ATV)
C. EME (Moon bounce)
D. VHF packet, CW and SSB
T2B10 (B)
When should digital transmissions be used on 2-meter simplex voice
frequencies?
A. In between voice syllables
B. Digital operations should be avoided on simplex voice
frequencies
C. Only in the evening
D. At any time, so as to encourage the best use of the band
T2B11 (A)
What operating mode should your packet TNC include if you want to
participate in the amateur TCP/IP network?
A. KISS mode
B. Command mode
C. Monitor mode
D. CW interface mode
T2B12 (B)
Which of the following will allow you to monitor Amateur
Television (ATV) on the 70-cm band?
A. A portable video camera
B. A cable ready TV receiver
C. An SSTV converter
D. A TV flyback transformer
T2B13 (B)
Which of the following would be useful to create an effective weak
signal VHF Amateur Radio station?
A. A hand-held VHF FM transceiver
B. A multi-mode VHF transceiver
C. An omni directional antenna
D. A mobile VHF FM transceiver
T2C Distress calling and emergency drills and communications -
operations and equipment, Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
(RACES)
T2C01 (A)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?
A. Say "MAYDAY" several times
B. Say "HELP" several times
C. Say "EMERGENCY" several times
D. Say "SOS" several times
T2C02 (D)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?
A. MAYDAY
B. QRRR
C. QRZ
D. SOS
T2C03 (A)
What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to
signal a distress call?
A. Say "BREAK" twice, then your call sign
B. Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer
C. Say "SOS," then your call sign
D. Say "EMERGENCY" three times
T2C04 (B)
What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command
post" or "weather center" during an emergency?
A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on
B. They are more efficient and help coordinate public-service
communications
C. They are required by the FCC
D. They increase goodwill between amateurs
T2C05 (D)
What type of messages concerning a person's well-being are sent
into or out of a disaster area?
A. Routine traffic
B. Tactical traffic
C. Formal message traffic
D. Health and Welfare traffic
T2C06 (B)
What are messages called that are sent into or out of a disaster
area concerning the immediate safety of human life?
A. Tactical traffic
B. Emergency traffic
C. Formal message traffic
D. Health and Welfare traffic
T2C07 (B)
Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur
station without using commercial AC power lines?
A. So you may use your station while mobile
B. So you may provide communications in an emergency
C. So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed
D. So you will comply with the FCC rules
T2C08 (C)
What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio
in an emergency?
A. An extra antenna
B. A portable amplifier
C. Several sets of charged batteries
D. A microphone headset for hands-free operation
T2C09 (C)
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable
HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?
A. A three-element quad
B. A three-element Yagi
C. A dipole
D. A parabolic dish
T2C10 (C)
With what organization must you register before you can
participate in RACES drills?
A. A local Amateur Radio club
B. A local racing organization
C. The responsible civil defense organization
D. The Federal Communications Commission
T2C11 (A)
What is the maximum number of hours allowed per week for RACES
drills?
A. One
B. Seven, but not more than one hour per day
C. Eight
D. As many hours as you want
T2C12 (D)
How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?
A. As emergency messages
B. As amateur traffic
C. As official government messages
D. As drill or test messages
SUBELEMENT T3 -- RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION
[3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
T3A VHF/UHF/Microwave Propagation
T3A01 (B)
How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible
horizon?
A. By sky wave
B. By line of sight
C. By plane wave
D. By geometric refraction
T3A02 (C)
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
A. F2
B. Ecosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Stratosphere
T3A03 (A)
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves?
A. It lets you contact stations farther away
B. It causes them to travel shorter distances
C. It garbles the signal
D. It reverses the sideband of the signal
T3A04 (D)
What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A. A very low pressure area
B. An aurora to the north
C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations
D. A temperature inversion
T3A05 (B)
What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles
over oceans?
A. A polar air mass
B. A widespread temperature inversion
C. An overcast of cirriform clouds
D. A high-pressure zone
T3A06 (A)
In which of the following frequency ranges does tropospheric
ducting most often occur?
A. UHF
B. MF
C. HF
D. VHF
T3A07 (B)
In which of the following frequency ranges does sky-wave
propagation least often occur?
A. LF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. VHF
T3A08 (A)
What weather condition may cause tropospheric ducting?
A. A stable high-pressure system
B. An unstable low-pressure system
C. A series of low-pressure waves
D. Periods of heavy rainfall
T3A09 (D)
What band conditions might indicate long-range skip on the 6-meter
and 2-meter bands?
A. Noise on the 80-meter band
B. The absence of signals on the 10-meter band
C. Very long-range skip on the 10-meter band
D. Strong signals on the 10-meter band from stations about 500 -
600 miles away
T3A10 (B)
Which ionospheric region most affects sky-wave propagation on the
6-meter band?
A. The D region
B. The E region
C. The F1 region
D. The F2 region
T3A11 (C)
How does the signal loss for a given path through the troposphere
vary with frequency?
A. There is no relationship
B. The path loss decreases as the frequency increases
C. The path loss increases as the frequency increases
D. There is no path loss at all
T3A12 (C)
What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF
transceiver to another nearby?
A. Tunnel propagation
B. Sky-wave propagation
C. Line-of-sight propagation
D. Auroral propagation
T3A13 (B)
Which frequency band, open to Technician class amateurs,
experiences summertime sporadic E propagation?
A. 23 centimeters
B. 6 meters
C. 70 centimeters
D. 1.25 meters
T3A14 (A)
Which of the following emission modes are considered to be weak-
signal modes and have the greatest potential for DX contacts?
A. Single sideband and CW
B. Packet radio and RTTY
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amateur television
T3A15 (D)
Which Technician frequency band could offer you the best chance of
sky-wave propagation?
A. 1.25 meters
B. 70 centimeters
C. 23 centimeters
D. 6 meters
T3B Ionospheric absorption, causes and variation, maximum usable
frequency
T3B01 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for absorbing
MF/HF radio signals during the daytime?
A. The F2 region
B. The F1 region
C. The E region
D. The D region
T3B02 (B)
When does ionospheric absorption of radio signals occur?
A. When tropospheric ducting occurs
B. When long-wavelength signals enter the D region
C. When signals travel to the F region at night
D. When a temperature inversion occurs
T3B03 (A)
What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower-
frequency HF signals in the daytime?
A. It absorbs the signals
B. It bends the radio waves out into space
C. It refracts the radio waves back to earth
D. It has little or no effect on 80-meter radio waves
T3B04 (B)
What causes the ionosphere to absorb radio waves?
A. The weather below the ionosphere
B. The ionization of the D region
C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E region
D. The splitting of the F region
T3B05 (C)
If you are receiving a weak and distorted signal from a distant
station on a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency, what
type of propagation is probably occurring?
A. Ducting
B. Line-of-sight
C. Scatter
D. Ground-wave
T3B06 (A)
Which ionospheric region limits daytime radio communications on
the 80-meter band to short distances?
A. The D region
B. The E region
C. The F1 region
D. The F2 region
T3B07 (A)
Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long-
distance radio-wave propagation?
A. The D region
B. The E region
C. The F1 region
D. The F2 region
T3B08 (D)
What is the condition of the ionosphere above a particular area of
the Earth just before local sunrise?
A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum
B. The D region is above the E region
C. The E region is above the F region
D. Ionization is at a minimum
T3B09 (C)
When is the ionosphere above a particular area of the Earth most
ionized?
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Midday
D. Dawn
T3B10 (A)
When is the ionosphere above a particular area of the Earth least
ionized?
A. Shortly before dawn
B. Just after noon
C. Just after dusk
D. Shortly before midnight
T3B11 (B)
When is the E region above a particular area of the Earth most
ionized?
A. Dawn
B. Midday
C. Dusk
D. Midnight
T3B12 (A)
What happens to signals that take off vertically from the antenna
and are higher in frequency than the critical frequency?
A. They pass through the ionosphere
B. They are absorbed by the ionosphere
C. Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the
maximum usable frequency
D. They are reflected back to their source
T3B13 (C)
What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A. The temperature of the ionosphere
B. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere
C. The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly
ultraviolet
D. The type of weather just below the ionosphere
T3B14 (A)
In relation to sky-wave propagation, what does the term "maximum
usable frequency" (MUF) mean?
A. The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended
destination
B. The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended
destination
C. The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere
D. The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere
T3C Amateur satellite and EME operations
T3C01 (A)
Why might you have to retune your receiver while listening to
signals from an amateur satellite?
A. Because of the Doppler effect
B. Because of the Einstein effect
C. Because of the Edison effect
D. Because of the Faraday effect
T3C02 (B)
How does the Doppler effect change an amateur satellite's signal
as the satellite passes overhead?
A. The signal's amplitude increases or decreases
B. The signal's frequency increases or decreases
C. The signal's polarization changes from horizontal to vertical
D. The signal's circular polarization rotates
T3C03 (C)
Why do many satellites and satellite operators use circularly
polarized antennas?
A. To correct for Doppler shift on transmitted signals
B. To obtain a wider beamwidth and eliminate the need to track
the satellite
C. To reduce the fading effects of non-spin-stabilized satellites
D. To reduce the effects of terrestrial interference
T3C04 (D)
Why do many amateur satellites operate on the VHF/UHF bands?
A. To take advantage of the skip zone
B. Because VHF/UHF equipment costs less than HF equipment
C. To give Technician class operators greater access to modern
communications technology
D. Because VHF and UHF signals easily pass through the ionosphere
T3C05 (B)
Why are high-gain antennas normally used for EME (moonbounce)
communications?
A. To reduce the scattering of the reflected signal as it returns
to Earth
B. To overcome the extreme path losses of this mode
C. To reduce the effects of polarization changes in the received
signal
D. To overcome the high levels of solar noise at the receiver
T3C06 (C)
Why is the Doppler effect not important when operating EME
(moonbounce)?
A. The Doppler effect does not occur beyond the ionosphere
B. EME antennas are always circularly polarized to eliminate any
Doppler effect
C. The distance between the earth and the moon does not change
rapidly enough to produce the Doppler effect
D. The rough surface of the moon scatters signals enough to
eliminate the Doppler effect
T3C07 (D)
Which of the following antenna systems would be the best choice
for an EME (moonbounce) station?
A. A single dipole antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A ground-plane antenna
D. A high-gain array of Yagi antennas
T3C08 (C)
Which antenna system would NOT be a good choice for an EME
(moonbounce) station?
A. A parabolic-dish antenna
B. A multi-element array of collinear antennas
C. A ground-plane antenna
D. A high-gain array of Yagi antennas
T3C09 (A)
Why is it necessary to use high-gain antennas and high transmitter
power for EME (moonbounce) operation?
A. To overcome path losses and poor reflectivity of the moon's
surface
B. To overcome the effects of Faraday rotation
C. To reduce the effects of Doppler shift
D. To reduce the effects of the solar wind
T3C10 (B)
When is it necessary to use a higher transmitter power level when
conducting satellite communications?
A. When the satellite is at its perigee
B. When the satellite is low to the horizon
C. When the satellite is fully illuminated by the sun
D. When the satellite is near directly overhead
T3C11 (C)
Which of the following conditions must be met before two stations
can conduct real-time communications through a satellite?
A. Both stations must use circularly polarized antennas
B. The satellite must be illuminated by the sun during the
communications
C. The satellite must be in view of both stations simultaneously
D. Both stations must use high-gain antenna systems
SUBELEMENT T4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES
[4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups]
T4A Electrical wiring, including switch location, dangerous
voltages and currents
T4A01 (C)
Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A. To the fuse
B. To the "hot" side of the power switch
C. To the chassis
D. To the white wire
T4A02 (D)
Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire AC line cord
be connected in a power supply?
A. To the white wire, which connects to the "hot" side of the
power switch
B. To the green wire, which connects to ground
C. To the chassis
D. To the fuse, which connects to the "hot" side of the power
switch
T4A03 (B)
Where should the white wire in a three-wire AC line cord be
connected in a power supply?
A. To the neutral side of the power transformer's primary
winding, which has a fuse
B. To the neutral side of the power transformer's primary
winding, which does not have a fuse
C. To the chassis
D. To the black wire
T4A04 (C)
What is the correct color code for a 120 VAC three-conductor power
cord?
A. The green wire connects to the neutral terminal, white connects
to the hot terminal, and black connects to the ground terminal
B. The black wire connects to the neutral terminal, green connects
to the hot terminal, and the white wire connects to the ground
terminal
C. The white wire connects to the neutral terminal, black connects
to the hot terminal, and green connects to the ground terminal
D. The red wire connects to the neutral terminal, black connects
to the ground terminal, and white connects to the hot terminal.
T4A05 (B)
Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a wall outlet made
of brass while the other one is silver colored?
A. To prevent corrosion
B. To indicate correct wiring polarity
C. To better conduct current
D. To reduce skin effect
T4A06 (C)
What is an important safety rule concerning the main electrical
box in your home?
A. Make sure the door cannot be opened easily
B. Make sure something is placed in front of the door so no one
will be able to get to it easily
C. Make sure others in your home know where it is and how to shut
off the electricity
D. Warn others in your home never to touch the switches, even in
an emergency
T4A07 (C)
Where should the main power switch for a high-voltage power supply
be located?
A. Inside the cabinet, to kill the power if the cabinet is opened
B. On the back side of the cabinet, out of sight
C. Anywhere that can be seen and reached easily
D. A high-voltage power supply should not be switch-operated
T4A08 (D)
What document is used by almost every US city as the basis for
electrical safety requirements for power wiring and antennas?
A. The Code of Federal Regulations
B. The Proceedings of the IEEE
C. The ITU Radio Regulations
D. The National Electrical Code
T4A09 (C)
What document would you use to see if you comply with standard
electrical safety rules when building an amateur antenna?
A. The Code of Federal Regulations
B. The Proceedings of the IEEE
C. The National Electrical Code
D. The ITU Radio Regulations
T4A10 (A)
What is the minimum voltage that is usually dangerous to humans?
A. 30 volts
B. 100 volts
C. 1000 volts
D. 2000 volts
T4A11 (B)
What precaution should you take when leaning over a power
amplifier?
A. Take your shoes off
B. Watch out for loose jewelry contacting high voltage
C. Shield your face from the heat produced by the power supply
D. Watch out for sharp edges that may snag your clothing
T4A12 (B)
What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by
high voltage?
A. Run from the area so you won't be burned too
B. Turn off the power, call for emergency help and give CPR if
needed
C. Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage
D. Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from
the high voltage on their own, then try to help
T4A13 (D)
Where should fuses be connected on a mobile transceiver's DC power
cable?
A. Between the red and black wires
B. In series with just the black wire
C. In series with just the red wire
D. In series with both the red and black wires
T4A14 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body will
probably be fatal?
A. As little as 1/10 of an ampere
B. Approximately 10 amperes
C. More than 20 amperes
D. Current through the human body is never fatal
T4A15 (A)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of
electrical current?
A. The heart
B. The brain
C. The liver
D. The lungs
T4A16 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body is
usually painful?
A. As little as 1/500 of an ampere
B. Approximately 10 amperes
C. More than 20 amperes
D. Current flow through the human body is never painful
T4B Meters and their placement in circuits, including volt, amp,
multi, peak-reading and RF watt; ratings of fuses and switches
T4B01 (B)
How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
T4B02 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
T4B03 (A)
Where should an RF wattmeter be connected for the most accurate
readings of transmitter output power?
A. At the transmitter output connector
B. At the antenna feed point
C. One-half wavelength from the transmitter output
D. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point
T4B04 (C)
How can the range of a voltmeter be increased?
A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C. By adding resistance in series with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test
D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter, between the
meter and the circuit under test
T4B05 (A)
What happens inside a voltmeter when you switch it from a lower to
a higher voltage range?
A. Resistance is added in series with the meter
B. Resistance is added in parallel with the meter
C. Resistance is reduced in series with the meter
D. Resistance is reduced in parallel with the meter
T4B06 (D)
How can the range of an ammeter be increased?
A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under test
C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter
T4B07 (D)
For which measurements would you normally use a multimeter?
A. SWR and power
B. Resistance, capacitance and inductance
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage, current and resistance
T4B08 (B)
What might happen if you switch a multimeter to measure resistance
while you have it connected to measure voltage?
A. The multimeter would read half the actual voltage
B. It would probably destroy the meter circuitry
C. The multimeter would read twice the actual voltage
D. Nothing unusual would happen; the multimeter would measure the
circuit's resistance
T4B09 (C)
If you switch a multimeter to read microamps and connect it into a
circuit drawing 5 amps, what might happen?
A. The multimeter would read half the actual current
B. The multimeter would read twice the actual current
C. It would probably destroy the meter circuitry
D. The multimeter would read a very small value of current
T4B10 (B)
At what line impedance do most RF watt meters usually operate?
A. 25 ohms
B. 50 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
T4B11 (A)
What does a directional wattmeter measure?
A. Forward and reflected power
B. The directional pattern of an antenna
C. The energy used by a transmitter
D. Thermal heating in a load resistor
T4B12 (B)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A. 10 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 90 watts
D. 100 watts
T4B13 (C)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 96 watts forward power and 4
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output
power?
A. 80 watts
B. 88 watts
C. 92 watts
D. 100 watts
T4B14 (A)
Why might you use a peak-reading RF wattmeter at your station?
A. To make sure your transmitter's output power is not higher
than that authorized by your license class
B. To make sure your transmitter is not drawing too much power
from the AC line
C. To make sure all your transmitter's power is being radiated by
your antenna
D. To measure transmitter input and output power at the same time
T4B15 (C)
What could happen to your transceiver if you replace its blown 5
amp AC line fuse with a 30 amp fuse?
A. The 30-amp fuse would better protect your transceiver from
using too much current
B. The transceiver would run cooler
C. The transceiver could use more current than 5 amps and a fire
could occur
D. The transceiver would not be able to produce as much RF output
T4B16 (D)
Why shouldn't you use a switch rated at 1 amp to switch power to a
mobile transceiver that draws 8 amps?
A. This would be against FCC Rules
B. This would be against state motor vehicle laws
C. The transceiver would not be able to produce as much RF output
D. The switch could overheat and become a safety hazard
T4C Marker generator, crystal calibrator, signal generators and
impedance-match indicator
T4C01 (A)
What is a marker generator?
A. A high-stability oscillator that generates reference signals
at exact frequency intervals
B. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a range of
frequencies
C. A low-stability oscillator used to inject a signal into a
circuit under test
D. A high-stability oscillator that can produce a wide range of
frequencies and amplitudes
T4C02 (A)
What is one use for a marker generator?
A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
C. To test the amplitude linearity of a transmitter
D. To test the frequency integration of a transmitter
T4C03 (D)
What device is used to inject a frequency calibration signal into
a receiver?
A. A calibrated voltmeter
B. A calibrated oscilloscope
C. A calibrated wavemeter
D. A crystal calibrator
T4C04 (C)
What device produces a stable, low-level signal that can be set to
a desired frequency?
A. A wavemeter
B. A reflectometer
C. A signal generator
D. An oscilloscope
T4C05 (B)
What is one use for an RF signal generator?
A. Measuring AF signal amplitudes
B. Aligning tuned circuits
C. Adjusting transmitter impedance-neutralizing networks
D. Measuring transmission-line impedances
T4C06 (D)
What device can measure an impedance mismatch in your antenna
system?
A. A field-strength meter
B. An ammeter
C. A wavemeter
D. A reflectometer
T4C07 (A)
Where should a reflectometer be connected for best accuracy when
reading the impedance match between an antenna and its feed line?
A. At the antenna feed point
B. At the transmitter output connector
C. At the midpoint of the feed line
D. Anywhere along the feed line
T4C08 (A)
If you use an RF power meter designed to operate on 3-30 MHz for
VHF measurements, how accurate will its readings be?
A. They are not likely to be accurate
B. They will be accurate enough to get by
C. If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D. They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied by
4.5
T4C09 (C)
If you use an SWR meter designed to operate on 3-30 MHz for VHF
measurements, how accurate will its readings be?
A. They will not be accurate
B. They will be accurate enough to get by
C. If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position,
they may be accurate
D. They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied by
4.5
T4C10 (B)
What frequency standard may be used to calibrate the tuning dial
of a receiver?
A. A calibrated voltmeter
B. Signals from WWV and WWVH
C. A deviation meter
D. A sweep generator
T4C11 (C)
What is the most accurate way to check the calibration of your
receiver's tuning dial?
A. Monitor the BFO frequency of a second receiver
B. Tune to a popular amateur net frequency
C. Tune to one of the frequencies of station WWV or WWVH
D. Tune to another amateur station and ask what frequency the
operator is using
T4D Dummy antennas and S-meters
T4D01 (D)
What device should be connected to a transmitter's output when you
are making transmitter adjustments?
A. A multimeter
B. A reflectometer
C. A receiver
D. A dummy antenna
T4D02 (B)
What is a dummy antenna?
A. An nondirectional transmitting antenna
B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter
C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
D. A flexible antenna usually used on hand-held transceivers
T4D03 (C)
What is the main component of a dummy antenna?
A. A wire-wound resistor
B. An iron-core coil
C. A noninductive resistor
D. An air-core coil
T4D04 (B)
What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter
tests so that no signal is radiated?
A. An antenna matcher
B. A dummy antenna
C. A low-pass filter
D. A decoupling resistor
T4D05 (A)
Why would you use a dummy antenna?
A. For off-the-air transmitter testing
B. To reduce output power
C. To give comparative signal reports
D. To allow antenna tuning without causing interference
T4D06 (A)
What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a 100
watt single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. 100 watts continuous
B. 141 watts continuous
C. 175 watts continuous
D. 200 watts continuous
T4D07 (D)
Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use?
A. Because it stores electric current
B. Because it stores radio waves
C. Because it absorbs static electricity
D. Because it changes RF energy into heat
T4D08 (B)
Would a 100 watt light bulb make a good dummy load for tuning a
transceiver?
A. Yes; a light bulb behaves exactly like a dummy load
B. No; the impedance of the light bulb changes as the filament
gets hot
C. No; the light bulb would act like an open circuit
D. No; the light bulb would act like a short circuit
T4D09 (A)
What is used to measure relative signal strength in a receiver?
A. An S meter
B. An RST meter
C. A signal deviation meter
D. An SSB meter
T4D10 (C)
Why might two radios using the same antenna and receiving the same
signal show two very different S-meter readings?
A. S meters are always referenced to the maximum RF output
available from the transceiver
B. S meters are always referenced to the maximum discernible
signal the receiver can hear
C. Receiver S meters give only a relative indication of received
signal strength
D. Some S meters are calibrated to US standards while others are
calibrated to foreign standards
T4D11 (D)
What does your transceiver "S meter" indicate?
A. The transmitted audio strength
B. The final RF transistor amplifier source voltage
C. The percentage of secondary modulation
D. The relative received signal strength
SUBELEMENT T5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES
[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]
T5A Definition and unit of measurement of resistance, inductance
and capacitance
T5A01 (D)
What does resistance do in an electric circuit?
A. It stores energy in a magnetic field
B. It stores energy in an electric field
C. It provides electrons by a chemical reaction
D. It opposes the flow of electrons
T5A02 (B)
What is the definition of 1 ohm?
A. The reactance of a circuit in which a 1-microfarad capacitor
is resonant at 1 MHz
B. The resistance of a circuit in which a 1-amp current flows
when 1 volt is applied
C. The resistance of a circuit in which a 1-milliamp current
flows when 1 volt is applied
D. The reactance of a circuit in which a 1-millihenry inductor is
resonant at 1 MHz
T5A03 (C)
What is the basic unit of resistance?
A. The farad
B. The watt
C. The ohm
D. The resistor
T5A04 (D)
What is one reason resistors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To block the flow of alternating current while allowing direct
current to pass
C. To increase the voltage of the circuit
D. To control the amount of current that flows for a particular
applied voltage
T5A05 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A. Admittance
B. Capacitance
C. Resistance
D. Inductance
T5A06 (C)
What is the basic unit of inductance?
A. The coulomb
B. The farad
C. The henry
D. The ohm
T5A07 (C)
What is a henry?
A. The basic unit of admittance
B. The basic unit of capacitance
C. The basic unit of inductance
D. The basic unit of resistance
T5A08 (B)
What is one reason inductors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To reduce the flow of AC while allowing DC to pass freely
C. To change the time constant of the applied voltage
D. To change alternating current to direct current
T5A09 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A. Inductance
B. Resistance
C. Tolerance
D. Capacitance
T5A10 (A)
What is the basic unit of capacitance?
A. The farad
B. The ohm
C. The volt
D. The henry
T5A11 (B)
What is a farad?
A. The basic unit of resistance
B. The basic unit of capacitance
C. The basic unit of inductance
D. The basic unit of admittance
T5A12 (A)
What is one reason capacitors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To block the flow of alternating current while allowing direct
current to pass
C. To change the time constant of the applied voltage
D. To change alternating current to direct current
T5B Concepts and calculation of resistance, inductance and
capacitance values in series and parallel circuits
T5B01 (C)
How is the current in a DC circuit directly calculated when the
voltage and resistance are known?
A. I = R x E [current equals resistance multiplied by voltage]
B. I = R / E [current equals resistance divided by voltage]
C. I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance]
D. I = E / P [current equals voltage divided by power]
T5B02 (B)
How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage
and current are known?
A. R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage]
B. R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current]
C. R = I x E [resistance equals current multiplied by voltage]
D. R = P / E [resistance equals power divided by voltage]
T5B03 (C)
How is the voltage in a DC circuit directly calculated when the
current and resistance are known?
A. E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance]
B. E = R / I [voltage equals resistance divided by current]
C. E = I x R [voltage equals current multiplied by resistance]
D. E = I / P [voltage equals current divided by power]
T5B04 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A. 0.25 ohm
B. 3 ohms
C. 12 ohms
D. 48 ohms
T5B05 (D)
If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.15 ampere to a circuit, what is
the circuit's resistance?
A. 0.15 ohm
B. 1.8 ohms
C. 12 ohms
D. 80 ohms
T5B06 (B)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts, how much current
will flow through it?
A. 4 A
B. 25 mA
C. 25 A
D. 40 mA
T5B07 (D)
If a 48,000-ohm resistor is connected to 120 volts, how much
current will flow through it?
A. 400 A
B. 40 A
C. 25 mA
D. 2.5 mA
T5B08 (A)
If a 4800-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts, how much current
will flow through it?
A. 2.5 mA
B. 25 mA
C. 40 A
D. 400 A
T5B09 (A)
If a 48,000-ohm resistor is connected to 12 volts, how much
current will flow through it?
A. 250 uA
B. 250 mA
C. 4000 mA
D. 4000 A
T5B10 (D)
If two resistors are connected in series, what is their total
resistance?
A. The difference between the individual resistor values
B. Always less than the value of either resistor
C. The product of the individual resistor values
D. The sum of the individual resistor values
T5B11 (B)
If two resistors are connected in parallel, what is their total
resistance?
A. The difference between the individual resistor values
B. Always less than the value of either resistor
C. The product of the two values
D. The sum of the individual resistors
T5B12 (B)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is
their total inductance?
A. Half the value of one inductor
B. Twice the value of one inductor
C. The same as the value of either inductor
D. The value of one inductor times the value of the other
T5B13 (A)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is
their total inductance?
A. Half the value of one inductor
B. Twice the value of one inductor
C. The same as the value of either inductor
D. The value of one inductor times the value of the other
T5B14 (C)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is
their total capacitance?
A. Twice the value of one capacitor
B. The same as the value of either capacitor
C. Half the value of either capacitor
D. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
T5B15 (A)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is
their total capacitance?
A. Twice the value of one capacitor
B. Half the value of one capacitor
C. The same as the value of either capacitor
D. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
SUBELEMENT T6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS
[2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]
T6A Resistors, construction types, variable and fixed, color
code, power ratings, schematic symbols
T6A01 (B)
Which of the following are common resistor types?
A. Plastic and porcelain
B. Film and wire-wound
C. Electrolytic and metal-film
D. Iron core and brass core
T6A02 (C)
What does a variable resistor or potentiometer do?
A. Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it
B. It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage
C. Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved
D. Its resistance changes when it is heated
T6A03 (B)
How do you find a resistor's value?
A. By using a voltmeter
B. By using the resistor's color code
C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D. By using the Baudot code
T6A04 (B)
How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating?
A. By using a voltmeter
B. By reading the resistor's color code
C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
D. By reading its Baudot code
T6A05 (A)
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?
A. The value of the resistor in ohms
B. The resistance tolerance in percent
C. The power rating in watts
D. The resistance material
T6A06 (B)
What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?
A. The value of the resistor in ohms
B. The resistance tolerance in percent
C. The power rating in watts
D. The resistance material
T6A07 (A)
Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use?
A. Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat
B. Their reactance makes them heat up
C. Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up
D. They absorb magnetic energy, which makes them hot
T6A08 (C)
Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one
of the same resistance value?
A. For better response time
B. For a higher current gain
C. For greater power dissipation
D. For less impedance in the circuit
T6A09 (C)
What range of resistance values are possible with a 100-ohm
resistor that has a 10% tolerance?
A. 90 to 100 ohms
B. 10 to 100 ohms
C. 90 to 110 ohms
D. 80 to 120 ohms
T6A10 (A)
Which tolerance rating would indicate a high-precision resistor?
A. 0.1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
T6A11 (D)
Which tolerance rating would indicate a low-precision resistor?
A. 0.1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
T6A12 (A) Which symbol of Figure T6-1 represents a fixed resistor? A. Symbol 2 B. Symbol 3 C. Symbol 4 D. Symbol 5 T6A13 (C) Which symbol of Figure T6-1 represents a variable resistor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 6 T6A14 (D) What type of resistor does symbol 2 represent in Figure T6-1? A. A wire-wound resistor B. A carbon-film resistor C. A carbon composition resistor D. Symbol 2 gives no information about the resistor's type T6B Inductor and capacitor schematic symbols; construction of variable and fixed inductors and capacitors; factors affecting inductance and capacitance
T6B01 (A) Which symbol of Figure T6-2 represents a fixed-value capacitor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B02 (B) In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents an adjustable inductor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B03 (D) In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents a fixed-value iron-core inductor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B04 (D) In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents an inductor wound over a toroidal core? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B05 (A) In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents an electrolytic capacitor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B06 (C) In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents a variable capacitor? A. Symbol 1 B. Symbol 2 C. Symbol 3 D. Symbol 4 T6B07 (D) What is an inductor core? A. The place where a coil is tapped for resonance B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer C. Insulating material placed between the wires of a transformer D. The place inside an inductor where its magnetic field is concentrated T6B08 (C) What does an inductor do? A. It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage B. It stores energy electrochemically and opposes a change in current C. It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in current D. It stores energy electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage T6B09 (D) What determines the inductance of a coil? A. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically B. The core diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire C. The core material, the number of turns used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through the coil D. The core material, the core diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil T6B10 (A) As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the coil's inductance? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. It disappears T6B11 (A) What can happen if you tune a ferrite-core coil with a metal tool? A. The metal tool can change the coil's inductance and cause you to tune the coil incorrectly B. The metal tool can become magnetized so much that you might not be able to remove it from the coil C. The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become very hot D. The metal tool can pick up enough magnetic energy to become a shock hazard T6B12 (C) What describes a capacitor? A. Two or more layers of silicon material with an insulating material between them B. Two or more turns of wire wound around a core material C. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material between them D. Two or more insulating plates with a conductive material between them T6B13 (B) What does a capacitor do? A. It stores energy electrochemically and opposes a change in current B. It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage C. It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in current D. It stores energy electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage T6B14 (A) What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? A. The material between the plates, the area of one side of one plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates B. The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type D. The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating T6B15 (B) As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what happens to its capacitance? A. It decreases B. It increases C. It stays the same D. It disappears T6B16 (D) Which of the following best describes a variable capacitor? A. A set of fixed capacitors whose connections can be varied B. Two sets of insulating plates separated by a conductor, which can be varied in distance from each other C. A set of capacitors connected in a series-parallel circuit D. Two sets of rotating conducting plates separated by an insulator, which can be varied in surface area exposed to each other SUBELEMENT T7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 Exam Question -- 1 Group] T7A Transmitter and receiver block diagrams; purpose and operation of low-pass, high-pass and band-pass filters T7A01 (D) What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a driver and a power amplifier? A. A packet-radio transmitter B. A crystal-controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter T7A02 (B) What circuit combines signals from an IF amplifier stage and a beat-frequency oscillator (BFO), to produce an audio signal? A. An AGC circuit B. A detector circuit C. A power supply circuit D. A VFO circuit T7A03 (D) What circuit uses a limiter and a frequency discriminator to produce an audio signal? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A superheterodyne receiver D. An FM receiver
T7A04 (D) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable- frequency oscillator? A. A packet-radio transmitter B. A crystal-controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A VFO-controlled transmitter T7A05 (A) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a crystal oscillator? A. A crystal-controlled transmitter B. A VFO-controlled transmitter C. A single-sideband transmitter D. A CW transceiver T7A06 (B) What purpose does block 1 serve in the simple CW transmitter pictured in Figure T7-1? A. It detects the CW signal B. It controls the transmitter frequency C. It controls the transmitter output power D. It filters out spurious emissions from the transmitter
T7A07 (B) What is block 1 in Figure T7-2? A. An AGC circuit B. A detector C. A power supply D. A VFO circuit T7A08 (C) What type of circuit does Figure T7-2 represent if block 1 is a product detector? A. A simple phase modulation receiver B. A simple FM receiver C. A simple CW and SSB receiver D. A double-conversion multiplier T7A09 (D) If Figure T7-2 is a diagram of a simple single-sideband receiver, what type of circuit should be shown in block 1? A. A high pass filter B. A ratio detector C. A low pass filter D. A product detector
T7A10 (D) What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-3, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator? A. A double-conversion receiver B. A variable-frequency oscillator C. A superheterodyne receiver D. An FM receiver T7A11 (A) What is block 1 in the FM receiver shown in Figure T7-3? A. A frequency discriminator B. A product detector C. A frequency-shift modulator D. A phase inverter T7A12 (B) What would happen if block 1 failed to function in the FM receiver diagram shown in Figure T7-3? A. The audio output would sound loud and distorted B. There would be no audio output C. There would be no effect D. The receiver's power supply would be short-circuited
T7A13 (C) What is block 1 in Figure T7-4? A. A band-pass filter B. A crystal oscillator C. A reactance modulator D. A rectifier modulator T7A14 (C) What circuit is shown in Figure T7-4 if block 1 is a reactance modulator? A. A single-sideband transmitter B. A double-sideband AM transmitter C. An FM transmitter D. A product transmitter T7A15 (D) How would the output of the FM transmitter shown in Figure T7-4 be affected if the audio amplifier failed to operate (assuming block 1 is a reactance modulator)? A. There would be no output from the transmitter B. The output would be 6-dB below the normal output power C. The transmitted audio would be distorted but understandable D. The output would be an unmodulated carrier T7A16 (C) Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in their RF output circuits? A. To reduce RF energy below a cutoff point B. To reduce low-frequency interference to other amateurs C. To reduce harmonic radiation D. To reduce fundamental radiation T7A17 (A) What circuit blocks RF energy above and below certain limits? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter T7A18 (A) What type of filter is used in the IF section of receivers to block energy outside a certain frequency range? A. A band-pass filter B. A high-pass filter C. An input filter D. A low-pass filter T7A19 (C) What circuit function is found in all types of receivers? A. An audio filter B. A beat-frequency oscillator C. A detector D. An RF amplifier T7A20 (D) What would you use to connect a dual-band antenna to a mobile transceiver which has separate VHF and UHF outputs? A. A dual-needle SWR meter B. A full-duplex phone patch C. Twin high-pass filters D. A duplexer SUBELEMENT T8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups] T8A Concepts and types of modulation T8A01 (B) What is the name for unmodulated carrier wave emissions? A. Phone B. Test C. MCW D. RTTY T8A02 (C) What is the name for emissions produced by switching a transmitter's output on and off? A. Phone B. Test C. CW D. RTTY T8A03 (B) What term describes the process of combining an information signal with a radio signal? A. Superposition B. Modulation C. Demodulation D. Phase-inversion T8A04 (B) What is the name for packet-radio emissions? A. CW B. Data C. Phone D. RTTY T8A05 (D) How is tone-modulated Morse code produced? A. By feeding a microphone's audio signal into an FM transmitter B. By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a CW transmitter C. By on/off keying of a carrier D. By feeding an on/off keyed audio tone into a transmitter T8A06 (D) What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF repeaters? A. Single-sideband phone B. Pulse-modulated phone C. Slow-scan phone D. Frequency-modulated phone T8A07 (A) Which of the following voice emission modes begins by amplitude modulating an RF carrier? A. Single-sideband phone B. Pulse-modulated phone C. Phase-modulated phone D. Width-modulated phone T8A08 (A) What is meant by the upper-sideband (USB)? A. The part of a single-sideband signal that is above the carrier frequency B. The part of a single-sideband signal that is below the carrier frequency C. Any frequency above 10 MHz D. The carrier frequency of a single-sideband signal T8A09 (D) What emissions are produced by a transmitter using a reactance modulator? A. CW B. Test C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone D. Phase-modulated phone T8A10 (C) What other emission does phase modulation most resemble? A. Amplitude modulation B. Pulse modulation C. Frequency modulation D. Single-sideband modulation T8A11 (B) What is the name for emissions produced by an on/off keyed audio tone? A. RTTY B. MCW C. CW D. Phone T8A12 (D) If you receive a phase-modulated voice signal and a frequency- modulated voice signal, what difference will you notice? A. Phase-modulated signals cannot be detected with most amateur equipment B. Phase-modulated signals do not sound as clear as frequency- modulated signals C. Phase-modulated signals are more difficult to tune in than frequency-modulated signals D. The signals will sound the same T8B RF carrier, definition and typical bandwidths and FM deviation T8B01 (A) What is another name for a constant-amplitude radio-frequency signal? A. An RF carrier B. An AF carrier C. A sideband carrier D. A subcarrier T8B02 (C) What is an RF carrier? A. The part of a transmitter that carries the signal to the transmitter antenna B. The part of a receiver that carries the signal from the antenna to the detector C. A radio frequency signal that is modulated to produce a radiotelephone signal D. A modulation that changes a radio frequency signal to produce a radiotelephone signal T8B03 (A) What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work? A. An unmodulated carrier B. A phase-modulated carrier C. An amplitude-modulated carrier D. A frequency-modulated carrier T8B04 (B) How would you modulate a 2-meter FM transceiver to produce packet- radio emissions? A. Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave B. Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's microphone input C. Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input D. Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input T8B05 (C) Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications? A. The carrier is not detectable B. It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals C. It has audio that is less affected by interference from static-type electrical noise D. Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes T8B06 (D) Why do many radio receivers have several IF filters of different bandwidths that can be selected by the operator? A. Because some frequency bands are wider than others B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver sensitivity C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings D. Because some emission types need a wider bandwidth than others to be received properly T8B07 (C) Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth? A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice T8B08 (D) What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal? A. 1 kHz B. 2 kHz C. Between 3 and 6 kHz D. Between 2 and 3 kHz T8B09 (C) What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal? A. Less than 5 kHz B. Between 5 and 10 kHz C. Between 10 and 20 kHz D. Greater than 20 kHz T8B10 (B) What is the usual bandwidth of UHF amateur fast-scan television? A. More than 6 MHz B. About 6 MHz C. About 3 MHz D. About 1 MHz T8B11 (B) What is the result of over deviation in an FM transmitter? A. Increased transmitter power B. Out-of-channel emissions C. Increased transmitter range D. Poor carrier suppression T8B12 (C) What causes splatter interference? A. Keying a transmitter too fast B. Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit C. Overmodulation of a transmitter D. The transmitting antenna is the wrong length SUBELEMENT T9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups] T9A Parasitic beam and non-directional antennas T9A01 (C) What is a directional antenna? A. An antenna that sends and receives radio energy equally well in all directions B. An antenna that cannot send and receive radio energy by skywave or skip propagation C. An antenna that sends and receives radio energy mainly in one direction D. An antenna that uses a directional coupler to measure power transmitted T9A02 (A) How is a Yagi antenna constructed? A. Two or more straight, parallel elements are fixed in line with each other B. Two or more square or circular loops are fixed in line with each other C. Two or more square or circular loops are stacked inside each other D. A straight element is fixed in the center of three or more elements that angle toward the ground T9A03 (C) What type of beam antenna uses two or more parallel straight elements arranged in line with each other? A. A delta loop antenna B. A quad antenna C. A Yagi antenna D. A Zepp antenna T9A04 (B) How many directly driven elements do most parasitic beam antennas have? A. None B. One C. Two D. Three T9A05 (A) What is a parasitic beam antenna? A. An antenna in which some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element B. An antenna in which wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements C. An antenna in which all elements are driven by direct connection to the feed line D. An antenna in which the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements T9A06 (D) What are the parasitic elements of a Yagi antenna? A. The driven element and any reflectors B. The director and the driven element C. Only the reflectors (if any) D. Any directors or any reflectors T9A07 (B) What is a cubical quad antenna? A. Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long C. A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom D. A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long T9A08 (A) What is a delta loop antenna? A. An antenna similar to a cubical quad antenna, except with triangular elements rather than square B. A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding C. An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape D. An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form T9A09 (C) Which of the following antennas is NOT an example of a parasitic beam? A. A quad B. A Yagi C. A collinear array D. A delta loop T9A10 (D) What type of non-directional antenna is easy to make at home and works well outdoors? A. A Yagi B. A delta loop C. A cubical quad D. A ground plane T9A11 (D) What type of antenna is made when a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car? A. A Yagi B. A delta loop C. A cubical quad D. A ground plane T9A12 (A) If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy? A. It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions B. Most of it goes in one direction C. Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions D. Most of it is aimed high into the air T9B Polarization, impedance matching and SWR, feed lines, balanced vs. unbalanced (including baluns) T9B01 (B) What does horizontal wave polarization mean? A. The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface B. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface C. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface D. The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface T9B02 (C) What does vertical wave polarization mean? A. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface B. The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface C. The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface D. The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface T9B03 (C) What is one advantage of using a single element vertical antenna? A. It usually has a high angle of radiation B. It is always a ground-independent antenna C. It usually has a low-angle radiation pattern D. It usually creates a high SWR on the transmission line T9B04 (C) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when its elements are parallel to the Earth's surface? A. Circular B. Helical C. Horizontal D. Vertical T9B05 (D) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth's surface? A. Circular B. Horizontal C. Parabolical D. Vertical T9B06 (D) What electromagnetic-wave polarization does most man-made electrical noise have in the HF and VHF spectrum? A. Horizontal B. Left-hand circular C. Right-hand circular D. Vertical T9B07 (B) What electromagnetic-wave polarization do most repeaters have in the VHF and UHF spectrum? A. Horizontal B. Vertical C. Right-hand circular D. Left-hand circular T9B08 (C) What electromagnetic-wave polarization is used for most satellite operation? A. Only horizontal B. Only vertical C. Circular D. No polarization T9B09 (D) What does standing-wave ratio mean? A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line B. The ratio of maximum to minimum capacitances on a feed line C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line T9B10 (C) Why should you try to maintain a low SWR when a VHF parasitic beam is fed with coaxial cable? A. A low SWR reduces spurious emissions B. A low SWR allows the transmission line to warm up in cold weather C. A low SWR results in a more efficient transfer of energy from the transmission line to the antenna D. A low SWR reduces front-end overload in neighboring television receivers T9B11 (A) What does forward power mean? A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna B. The power radiated from the top of an antenna system C. The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier T9B12 (B) What does reflected power mean? A. The power radiated down to the ground from an antenna B. The power returned towards the source on a transmission line C. The power produced during the negative half of an RF cycle D. The power returned to an antenna by buildings and trees T9B13 (C) What happens to radio energy when it is sent through a poor quality coaxial cable? A. It causes spurious emissions B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground C. It is converted to heat in the cable D. It causes interference to other stations near the transmitting frequency T9B14 (A) What is one disadvantage of using parallel-conductor open-wire transmission line? A. It is more difficult to properly install B. It is more expensive than coax C. Its balanced characteristics cannot be matched to the 50-ohm output impedance of modern transceivers D. It cannot be operated efficiently with a high SWR T9B15 (C) What is an unbalanced line? A. A feed line with neither conductor connected to ground B. A feed line with both conductors connected to ground C. A feed line with one conductor connected to ground D. All of these answers are correct T9B16 (D) What is a balanced line? A. A feed line that has its inner conductor balanced with the outer shield B. A feed line that is always operated at a low SWR to preserve its balance C. A feed line with an impedance that is balanced at 450 ohms or more D. A feed line made of 2 parallel conductors with a uniform space between them T9B17 (A) What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced feed line? A. A balun B. A loading coil C. A triaxial transformer D. A wavetrap T9B18 (C) Which of the following would you NOT use to make a balun? A. A toroid B. A length of transmission line C. A pair of tantalum capacitors D. A pair of air-wound coils T9C Line losses by line type, length and frequency T9C01 (B) What common connector usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver? A. An F-type cable connector B. A PL-259 connector C. A banana plug connector D. A binding post connector T9C02 (A) What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna? A. A BNC connector B. A PL-259 connector C. An F-type cable connector D. A binding post connector T9C03 (B) Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF? A. An F-type cable connector B. A type-N connector C. A BNC connector D. A PL-259 connector T9C04 (A) If you install a 6-meter Yagi antenna on a tower 150 feet from your transmitter, which of the following feed lines is best? A. RG-213 B. RG-58 C. RG-59 D. RG-174 T9C05 (C) If you have a transmitter and an antenna that are 50 feet apart, but are connected by 200 feet of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should you do to reduce antenna system loss? A. Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an even number of wavelengths long B. Cut off the excess cable so the feed line is an odd number of wavelengths long C. Cut off the excess cable D. Roll the excess cable into a coil that is as small as possible T9C06 (B) As the length of a feed line is changed, what happens to signal loss? A. Signal loss is the same for any length of feed line B. Signal loss increases as length increases C. Signal loss decreases as length increases D. Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength T9C07 (B) As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a feed line? A. Signal loss is the same for any frequency B. Signal loss increases with increasing frequency C. Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency D. Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the feed line's length T9C08 (D) If your antenna feed line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean? A. You should transmit using less power B. The conductors in the feed line are not insulated very well C. The feed line is too long D. The SWR may be too high, or the feed line loss may be high T9C09 (A) Why should you regularly clean, tighten and re-solder all antenna connectors? A. To help keep their resistance at a minimum B. To keep them looking nice C. To keep them from getting stuck in place D. To increase their capacitance T9C10 (C) Which of the following is a reason to use good-quality, large- diameter coax in your VHF installations? A. To allow operation with a high SWR B. To keep the signal confined to the center conductor C. To keep losses to a minimum D. To allow operation on harmonically related bands T9C11 (B) Why is household lamp cord (zip-cord) not a good feed line to use for a 6 meter antenna installation? A. The line would not warm up properly at this frequency B. Line losses would be great at this frequency C. Line impedance would be too great at this frequency D. Line impedance would be too low at this frequency SUBELEMENT T0 -- RF SAFETY [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] T0A RF safety fundamentals T0A01 (B) Why is it a good idea to adhere to the FCC's Rules for using the minimum power needed when you are transmitting with your hand-held radio? A. Large fines are always imposed on operators violating this rule B. To reduce the level of RF radiation exposure to the operator's head C. To reduce calcification of the NiCd battery pack D. To eliminate self oscillation in the receiver RF amplifier T0A02 (D) Over what frequency range are the FCC Regulations most stringent for RF radiation exposure? A. Frequencies below 300 kHz B. Frequencies between 300 kHz and 3 MHz C. Frequencies between 3 MHz and 30 MHz D. Frequencies between 30 MHz and 300 MHz T0A03 (C) What is one biological effect to the eye that can result from RF exposure? A. The strong magnetic fields can cause blurred vision B. The strong magnetic fields can cause polarization lens C. It can cause heating, which can result in the formation of cataracts D. It can cause heating, which can result in astigmatism T0A04 (B) How do you calculate the boundary between the near field and the far field of a full sized dipole or Yagi antenna? A. Multiply the square root of the antenna length by 2 and divide by the frequency of the signal B. Multiply the square of the antenna length by 2 and divide by the wavelength of the signal C. Divide the antenna length by 2 and multiply by the frequency D. Divide the square of the antenna length by 2 and multiply by the wavelength T0A05 (C) In the far field, as the distance from the source increases, how does power density vary? A. The power density is proportional to the square of the distance B. The power density is proportional to the square root of the distance C. The power density is proportional to the inverse square of the distance D. The power density is proportional to the inverse cube of the distance T0A06 (D) In the near field, how does the field strength vary with distance from the source? A. It always increases with the cube of the distance B. It always decreases with the cube of the distance C. It varies as a sine wave with distance D. It depends on the type of antenna being used T0A07 (C) In the far field, what is the relationship between the electric (E) field and magnetic (H) field? A. In the formula 50 ohms equals E divided by H; it is a fixed relationship B. In the formula 72 ohms equals H divided by E; it is a fixed relationship C. In the formula 377 ohms equals E divided by H; it is a fixed relationship D. In the formula 450 ohms equals H divided by E; it is a fixed relationship T0A08 (A) Why should you never look into the open end of a waveguide while the transmitter is operating? A. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure level of RF radiation B. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure level of infrared radiation C. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure level of ultraviolet radiation D. All of these choices are correct T0A09 (A) Why should you never look into the open end of a microwave feed horn antenna while the transmitter is operating? A. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure of RF radiation B. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure level of infrared radiation C. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible exposure level of ultraviolet radiation D. All of these choices are correct T0A10 (D) Why are Amateur Radio operators required to meet the FCC RF radiation exposure limits? A. The standards are applied equally to all radio services B. To ensure that RF radiation occurs only in a desired direction C. Because amateur station operations are more easily adjusted than those of commercial radio services D. To ensure a safe operating environment for amateurs, their families and neighbors T0A11 (A) Why are the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) levels not uniform throughout the radio spectrum? A.. The human body absorbs energy differently at various frequencies B. Some frequency ranges have a cooling effect while others have a heating effect on the body C. Some frequency ranges have no effect on the body D. Radiation at some frequencies can have a catalytic effect on the body T0B RF safety terms and definitions T0B01 (C) What does the term "specific absorption rate" or SAR mean? A. The degree of RF energy consumed by the ionosphere B. The rate at which transmitter energy is lost because of a poor feed line C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed into the human body D. The amount of signal weakening caused by atmospheric phenomena T0B02 (C) Which of the following terms best describe RF radiation? A. Cohesive radiation B. Ionizing radiation C. Nonionizing radiation D. Impulse radiation T0B03 (B) Why is RF energy classified as nonionizing radiation? A. Because the frequency is too high for there to be enough photon energy to ionize atoms B. Because the frequency is too low for there to be enough photon energy to ionize atoms C. Because it has no polar component D. Because it has no power factor T0B04 (D) On what value are the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits based? A. The square of the mass of the exposed body B. The square root of the mass of the exposed body C. The whole-body specific gravity (WBSG) D. The whole-body specific absorption rate (SAR) T0B05 (C) Why do exposure limits vary with frequency? A. Lower-frequency RF fields have more energy than higher- frequency fields B. Lower-frequency RF fields penetrate deeper into the body than higher-frequency fields C. The body's ability to absorb RF energy varies with frequency D. It is impossible to measure specific absorption rates at some frequencies T0B06 (A) Why is the concept of "duty cycle" one factor used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels? A. It takes into account the amount of time the transmitter is operating at full power during a single transmission B. It takes into account the transmitter power supply rating C. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier T0B07 (B) Why is the concept of "time averaging" one factor used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels? A. It takes into account the operating frequency B. It takes into account the transmit/receive time ratio during normal amateur communication C. It takes into account the overall efficiency of the final amplifier D. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss T0B08 (C) Why is the concept of "specific absorption rate (SAR)" one factor used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels? A. It takes into account the overall efficiency of the final amplifier B. It takes into account the transmit/receive time ratio during normal amateur communication C. It takes into account the rate at which the human body absorbs RF energy at a particular frequency D. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss T0B09 (D) Why must the frequency of an RF source be considered when evaluating RF radiation exposure? A. Lower-frequency RF fields have more energy than higher- frequency fields B. Lower-frequency RF fields penetrate deeper into the body than higher-frequency fields C. Higher-frequency RF fields are transient in nature, and do not affect the human body D. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others T0B10 (C) Which radio frequency emission has the shortest duty cycle? A. Two-way exchanges of phase modulated signals B. Two-way exchanges of FM telephony C. Two-way exchanges of SSB, single-sideband signals D. Two-way exchanges of CW, Morse code signals T0B11 (D) From an RF safety standpoint, what impact does the duty cycle have on the minimum safe distance separating an antenna and the neighboring environment? A. The lower the duty cycle, the shorter the compliance distance B. The compliance distance is increased with an increase in the duty cycle C. Lower duty cycles subject the environment to lower radio- frequency radiation cycles D. All of these answers are correct T0B12 (A) What effect does a 50% duty cycle have on the calculated "key down" RF safety distance from an amateur antenna to a neighboring residence? A. The compliance distance is reduced B. You must also multiply the distance by 50% C. Duty cycle is not a consideration in the RF safety calculations D. You divide the duty cycle into the inverse square of the distance T0C RF safety rules and guidelines
T0C01 (A) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the formula for calculating the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for controlled environments on the 1.25-meter (222 MHz) band? A. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 1.0 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 6 minutes B. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 0.2 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 30 minutes C. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 300 averaged over any 6 minutes D. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 1500 averaged over any 30 minutes T0C02 (B) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the formula for calculating the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on the 2-meter (146 MHz) band? A. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 1.0 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 6 minutes B. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 0.2 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 30 minutes C. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 300 averaged over any 6 minutes D. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 1500 averaged over any 30 minutes T0C03 (C) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the formula for calculating the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for controlled environments on the 70-centimeter (440 MHz) band? A. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 1.0 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 6 minutes B. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 0.2 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 30 minutes C. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 300 averaged over any 6 minutes D. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 1500 averaged over any 30 minutes T0C04 (D) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the formula for calculating the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on the 1240 to 1300-MHz band? A. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 1.0 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 6 minutes B. There is no formula, MPE is a fixed power density of 0.2 milliwatt per square centimeter averaged over any 30 minutes C. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 300 averaged over any 6 minutes D. The MPE in milliwatts per square centimeter equals the frequency in megahertz divided by 1500 averaged over any 30 minutes T0C05 (A) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the electric field strength of the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for controlled environments on the 2-meter (144 MHz) band? A. 61.4 volts per meter B. 27.5 volts per meter C. 0.163 volts per meter D. 0.073 volts per meter T0C06 (B) Referring to Figure NT0-1, what is the electric field strength of the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit for uncontrolled environments on the 1.25-meter (222 MHz) band? A. 61.4 volts per meter B. 27.5 volts per meter C. 0.163 volts per meter D. 0.073 volts per meter T0C07 (D) On which of the following amateur bands will the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits be a constant value for controlled RF radiation exposure environments? A. 1240 to 1300 MHz B. 902 to 928 MHz C. 420 to 450 MHz D. 222 to 225 MHz T0C08 (D) On which of the following amateur bands will the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits be a constant value for uncontrolled RF radiation exposure environments? A. 1240 to 1300 MHz B. 902 to 928 MHz C. 420 to 450 MHz D. 144 to 148 MHz T0C09 (C) Where will you find the applicable FCC RF radiation maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits defined? A. FCC Part 97 Amateur Service Rules and Regulations B. FCC Part 15 Radiation Exposure Rules and Regulations C. FCC Part 1 and Office of Engineering and Technology (OET) Bulletin 65 D. Environmental Protection Agency Regulation 65 T0C10 (A) What factors must you consider if your repeater station antenna will be located at a site that is occupied by antennas for transmitters in other services? A. Your radiated signal must be considered as part of the total RF radiation from the site when determining RF radiation exposure levels B. Each individual transmitting station at a multiple-transmitter site must meet the RF radiation exposure levels C. Each station at a multiple-transmitter site may add no more than 1% of the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) for that site D. Amateur stations are categorically excluded from RF radiation exposure evaluation at multiple-transmitter sites T0C11 (B) Which of the following categories describes most common amateur use of a hand-held transceiver? A. Mobile devices B. Portable devices C. Fixed devices D. None of these choices is correct T0C12 (C) Why does the FCC consider a hand-held transceiver to be a portable device when evaluating for RF radiation exposure? A. Because it is generally a low-power device B. Because it is designed to be carried close to your body C. Because it's transmitting antenna is generally within 20 centimeters of the human body D. All of these choices are correct T0C13 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a half- wavelength dipole antenna on 3.5 MHz at 100 watts? A. 6 feet B. 3.4 feet C. 1.5 feet D. 3 feet T0C14 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a quarter-wave vertical antenna on 7 MHz at 100 watts? A. 4.0 feet B. 2.7 feet C. 1.2 feet D. 7.5 feet T0C15 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a quarter-wave vertical on 28 MHz at 100 watts? A. 4.9 feet B. 3.5 feet C. 7 feet D. 11 feet T0C16 (A) What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna on 7 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1? A. 1.4 feet B. 2 feet C. 3.1 feet D. 6.5 feet T0C17 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for a station using a 3.5 MHz half-wavelength dipole antenna at 100 watts? A. 1.5 feet B. 2 feet C. 3 feet D. 3.4 feet T0C18 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the controlled limit for a station using a 21 MHz quarter-wave vertical at 100 watts? A. 3.7 feet B. 6 feet C. 8.2 feet D. 20 feet T0C19 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for a station using a 21 MHz quarter-wave vertical at 100 watts? A. 3.7 feet B. 8.2 feet C. 14.5 feet D. 26.5 feet T0C20 (C) What is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1? A. 1.5 feet B. 2 feet C. 4.1 feet D. 9.2 feet T0C21 (B) What is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a half-wavelength dipole antenna on 21 MHz at 100 watts PEP, as specified in Table NT0-1? A. 2.5 feet B. 9.2 feet C. 8 feet D. 20.6 feet T0C22 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 28 MHz half-wavelength dipole antenna at 100 watts? A. 12.3 feet B. 14.5 feet C. 27.5 feet D. 30 feet T0D Routine station evaluation T0D01 (A) If you do not have the equipment to measure the RF power densities present at your station, what might you do to ensure compliance with the FCC RF radiation exposure limits? A. Use one or more of the methods included in FCC OET Bulletin 65 B. Call an FCC-Certified Test Technician to perform the measurements for you C. Reduce power from 200 watts PEP to 100 watts PEP D. Operate only low-duty-cycle modes such as FM T0D02 (C) Which of the following factors must be taken into account when using a computer program to model RF fields at your station? A. Height above sea level at your station B. Ionization level in the F2 region of the ionosphere C. Ground interactions D. The latitude and longitude of your station location T0D03 (C) In which of the following areas is it most difficult to accurately evaluate the effects of RF radiation exposure? A. In the far field B. In the cybersphere C. In the near field D. In the low-power field T0D04 (D) Is it necessary for you to perform mathematical calculations of the RF radiation exposure if your station transmits with more than 50 watts peak envelope power (PEP)? A. Yes, calculations are always required to ensure greatest accuracy B. Calculations are required if your station is located in a densely populated neighborhood C. No, calculations may not give accurate results, so measurements are always required D. No, there are alternate means to determine if your station meets the RF radiation exposure limits
T0D05 (A) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents the power density in the main beam of an antenna transmitting 1000 watts effective radiated power (ERP) at a location 10 meters from the antenna? A. Point 1 B. Point 2 C. Point 3 D. Point 4 T0D06 (B) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents the power density in the main beam of an antenna transmitting 100 watts effective radiated power (ERP) at a location 5 meters from the antenna? A. Point 1 B. Point 2 C. Point 3 D. Point 6 T0D07 (C) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents the power density in the main beam of an antenna transmitting 10 watts effective radiated power (ERP) at a location 2 meters from the antenna? A. Point 1 B. Point 2 C. Point 3 D. Point 6 T0D08 (C) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents the power density in the main beam of an antenna transmitting 1000 watts effective radiated power (ERP) at a location 3 meters from the antenna? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 4 D. Point 5 T0D09 (A) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents a power density of 0.2 milliwatts per square centimeter in the main beam of an antenna transmitting 1000 watts effective radiated power (ERP)? A. Point 5 B. Point 2 C. Point 3 D. Point 4 T0D10 (B) For what purpose might you use the graph shown in Figure NT0-2? A. To determine the maximum permissible radiated power for your license class B. To help evaluate the worst case RF radiation exposure from your station C. To help evaluate the efficiency of your antenna system D. All of these choices are correct T0D11 (D) Which point on Figure NT0-2 represents the power density at a location 10 meters from the rear of an antenna transmitting 1000 watts effective radiated power (ERP)? A. Point 2 B. Point 3 C. Point 6 D. None of these choices is correct T0D12 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 10 watts? A. 1.7 feet B. 2.5 feet C. 1.2 feet D. 2 feet T0D13 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 50 watts? A. 3.7 feet B. 3 feet C. 4 feet D. 8.3 feet T0D14 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 150 watts? A. 5 feet B. 6.4 feet C. 14.4 feet D. 9 feet T0D15 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 150 watts? A. 6 feet B. 14.4 feet C. 8.3 feet D. 10.5 feet T0D16 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 50 watts? A. 4 feet B. 3.7 feet C. 8.3 feet D. 9 feet T0D17 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 146 MHz quarter-wave vertical antenna at 10 watts? A. 1.7 feet B. 3.7 feet C. 3 feet D. 4 feet T0D18 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 10 watts? A. 1 foot B. 4.3 feet C. 9.6 feet D. 6 feet T0D19 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 50 watts? A. 2.5 foot B. 4.3 feet C. 9.6 feet D. 9 feet T0D20 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 150 watts? A. 16.7 feet B. 7.5 feet C. 6 feet D. 10.5 feet T0D21 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 150 watts? A. 16.7 feet B. 7.5 feet C. 2.5 feet D. 1 foot T0D22 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 50 watts? A. 1 foot B. 4.3 feet C. 1.9 feet D. 6 feet T0D23 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 446 MHz 5/8-wave vertical antenna at 10 watts? A. 1.9 feet B. 2.5 feet C. 4 feet D. 4.3 feet T0E Practical applications for VHF/UHF and above operations T0E01 (B) For the lowest RF radiation exposure to passengers, where would you mount your mobile antenna? A. On the trunk lid B. On the roof C. On a front fender opposite the broadcast radio antenna D. On one side of the rear bumper T0E02 (C) What should you do for safety before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier? A. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna feed line B. Make sure the antenna feed line is properly grounded C. Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on D. Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected T0E03 (C) Why might mobile transceivers produce less RF radiation exposure than hand-held transceivers in mobile operations? A. They do not produce less exposure because they usually have higher power levels. B. They have a higher duty cycle C. When mounted on a metal vehicle roof, mobile antennas are generally well shielded from vehicle occupants D. Larger transmitters dissipate heat and energy more readily T0E04 (B) What are some reasons you should never operate a power amplifier unless its covers are in place? A. To maintain the required high operating temperatures of the equipment and reduce RF radiation exposure B. To reduce the risk of shock from high voltages and reduce RF radiation exposure C. To ensure that the amplifier will go into self oscillation and to minimize the effects of stray capacitance D. To minimize the effects of stray inductance and to reduce the risk of shock from high voltages T0E05 (C) Considering RF radiation exposure, which of the following conditions may be a reason to modify your station's antenna system? A. An SWR of 1:1 B. High feed line losses C. Feed line radiation D. Nonresonant parasitic elements T0E06 (D) Which of the following RF radiation exposure precautions might you use to ensure a safe operating environment at your amateur station? A. Avoid conditions leading to "RF in the shack" B. Use roof-mounted antennas for mobile operation whenever possible C. Avoid conditions leading to feed line radiation D. All of these choices are correct T0E07 (D) Which of the following statements are true about a broadband instrument used to measure RF fields? A. It is calibrated over a wide frequency range B. It responds instantaneously over a wide frequency range C. It requires no tuning D. All of these choices are correct T0E08 (D) Which of the following statements are true about a narrow bandwidth instrument used to measure RF fields? A. It may operate over a wide frequency range B. It's instantaneous bandwidth may be only a few kilohertz C. It must be tuned to the frequency of interest D. All of these choices are correct T0E09 (A) Why is it dangerous to look into the open end of a microwave feed horn antenna with power applied? A. Fields are concentrated at the open end of a microwave feed horn B. The feed horn antenna disperses the radiated energy over a wide area, to increase radiation exposure C. The feed horn antenna inverts the phase of the radiated energy, resulting in a strong cooling effect on nearby tissue D. The feed horn antenna converts RF radiation into powerful audio signals T0E10 (B) What is one way you can demonstrate compliance with the FCC RF radiation exposure limits? A. Ensure a good RF ground connection for all transmitting antennas B. Restrict accessibility to areas of high RF radiation levels C. Use open-wire feed line for all transmitting antennas D. Use only BNC and N-type connectors in your transmission lines T0E11 (C) What is the maximum emission power density permitted from an amateur station under the FCC RF radiation exposure limits? A. The FCC Rules specify a maximum emission of 1.0 milliwatt per square centimeter B. The FCC Rules specify a maximum emission of 5.0 milliwatts per square centimeter C. The FCC Rules specify exposure limits, not emission limits D. The FCC Rules specify maximum emission limits that vary with frequency T0E12 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a 3-element "triband" Yagi on 21 MHz at 100 watts? A. 16.4 feet B. 7.3 feet C. 4.5 feet D. 23 feet T0E13 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 3- element "triband" Yagi on 28 MHz at 100 watts? A. 15 feet B. 11 feet C. 22 feet D. 24.5 feet T0E14 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 3- element "triband" Yagi on 28 MHz at 100 watts? A. 7 feet B. 24.5 feet C. 15 feet D. 34.7 feet T0E15 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 10 watts? A. 32.4 feet B. 22.9 feet C. 2.5 feet D. 20 feet T0E16 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 100 watts? A. 14.5 feet B. 20 feet C. 72.4 feet D. 32.4 feet T0E17 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 500 watts? A. 20 feet B. 72.4 feet C. 162 feet D. 175.5 feet T0E18 (D) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for an uncontrolled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 1500 watts? A. 45.5 feet B. 78.5 feet C. 125.5 feet D. 280.6 feet T0E19 (B) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 1500 watts? A. 45.5 feet B. 125.5 feet C. 162 feet D. 175.5 feet T0E20 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 500 watts? A. 72.4 feet B. 78.5 feet C. 101 feet D. 125.5 feet T0E21 (D) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 100 watts? A. 45.5 feet B. 78.5 feet C. 10.2 feet D. 32.4 feet T0E22 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using a 17- element Yagi on a five-wavelength boom on 144 MHz at 10 watts? A. 32.4 feet B. 78.5 feet C. 10.2 feet D. 20 feet T0E23 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17- element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 150 watts? A. 90.9 feet B. 57 feet C. 78.5 feet D. 181.8 feet T0E24 (D) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17- element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 500 watts? A. 90.9 feet B. 175.5 feet C. 127 feet D. 166 feet T0E25 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the minimum safe distance for a controlled RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17- element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 1500 watts? A. 287.4 feet B. 166 feet C. 127 feet D. 232 feet T0E26 (C) Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for an RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17-element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 1500 watts? A. 371.1 feet B. 175.5 feet C. 642.7 feet D. 232 feet T0E27 (D) Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for an RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17-element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 500 watts? A. 203.3 feet B. 127 feet C. 401.5 feet D. 371.1 feet T0E28 (A) Using Table NT0-1 what is the uncontrolled limit for an RF radiation environment from a station using eight 17-element Yagis on five-wavelength booms for moonbounce (EME) on 144 MHz at 150 watts? A. 203.3 feet B. 127 feet C. 371.1 feet D. 232 feet
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